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The Anti-Christ will be but one man
Published on April 30, 2007 By Moderateman In Religion

 It seems that the hatred of Jews by Christians and Muslims goes much further back than I thought.

It has been prophesied In the Bible that the Antichrist shall be of the tribe of Dan one of the twelve tribes of Israel.    http://www.watch.pair.com/dan.html#prophecies

 

He shall at first be a peace maker, bringing peace to the middle east, and the Jews shall rejoice at this peace. He will bring the entire world under his spell by his skills as a magnetic orator and his personality which will seem supernatural.

CONSIDER THE PROPHECIES

    A.    The Antichrist

        1.    He is a Jew

Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers . . .nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all. Daniel 11:37

        2.    He is from the tribe/region of Dan

We looked for peace, but no good came; and for a time of health, and behold trouble! The snorting of his horses was heard from Dan: the whole land trembled at the sound of the neighing of his strong ones; for they are come, and have devoured the land, and all that is in it; the city, and those that dwell therein. For, behold, I will send serpents, cockatrices, among you, which will not be charmed, and they shall bite you, saith the LORD. Jeremiah 8:15-17

        3.    He is from the serpent's root.

Please note the context of Isaiah 14 is Lucifer's fall to earth in the end time [Revelation 12].
Rejoice not thou, whole Palestine, because the rod of him that smote thee is broken: for out of the serpent's root shall come forth a cockatrice, and his fruit shall be a fiery flying serpent. . . Howl, O gate; cry, O city; thou, whole Palestine, art dissolved: for there shall come from the north a smoke, and none shall be alone in his appointed times.  Isaiah 14:29,31

    B.    The Messiah

        1.    Will come from Sion

And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob. . . Romans 11:26

    C.    Dan/Tribe of Dan

        1.    Dan means "judge"

And Rachel said, God hath judged me, and hath also heard my voice, and hath given me a son: therefore called she his name Dan. Genesis 30:6

The Antichrist will create a world government and at first for three years the world will prosper, then he will show his true nature, He will create a religion where he is at the center of worship and anyone that denies that he is GOD shall be put to death. Over Half of the worlds population shall die, famine and disease will run rampant.

This is the beginning of the true Christ coming, where he will defeat the Antichrist and his minions. This is also the time when Jews will finally accept that Christ is the long awaited Messiah.


Comments (Page 8)
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on May 18, 2007
I'm thinking your last five words is just worded diff? Are you sure it's in Luke and not Isaiah? Mine says "and the day of vengeance of our God to comfort all that mourn." Yours is saying reward. Both speak of 2nd coming. That's my whole point.



Here are both passages from the Douay Rheims version:


Isaias 61:1-2, “The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, becasue the Lord hath anointed me: he hath sent me to preach to the meek, to heal the contrite of heart, and to preach a release to the captives, and deliverance to them that are shut up. 2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord, and the day of vengeance of our God: to comfort all those that mourn:”


St.Luke 4:18-19 “The Spirit of the Lord is upon me. Wherefore he has anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor, he hath sent me to heal the contrite of heart, 19 to preach release to the captives, and sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, to preach the acceptable year of the Lord, and the day of reward.”


According to St.Luke, Christ closed the book after He read the last phrase, "and the day of the reward"...and then He said the Scripture was fulfilled in their hearing. I can only conclude that since Jesus said Isaias' prophecy was fulfilled, therefore "the day of the reward" must be fulfilled in some way other than the Second Coming.


Yours is saying reward. Both speak of 2nd coming. That's my whole point.


KFC, It's no biggy that I interpret Isaias' prophecy differently. I concede your point that St.Luke's, "the day of reward", could very well be interpreted to mean Christ's Second Coming and the Final Judgment.

The prophecy of Isaias 63: 1-6 has been fulfilled. The poem refers to a victory that appears to have 2 different effects. On the one hand, victory is obtained after a very real and bloody struggle, symbolized by the treading of the wine press and it ends with bloody stained clothes v.3. The conquerer works on his own unaided v. 5. On the other hand, his victory over the enemy means redemption for his people, and the conquerer is first and foremost the Redeemer.

The interpretation of Isaias' poem as a prophecy applies to Jesus Christ who shed His blood during His Passion. And just as the wine harvestor does his heavy work on his own, with none to help him, v. 5, so too, Jesus Christ was abandoned by His disciples and left alone on Calvary when he was redeeming the world.



on May 19, 2007
KFC, It's no biggy that I interpret Isaias' prophecy differently. I concede your point that St.Luke's, "the day of reward", could very well be interpreted to mean Christ's Second Coming and the Final Judgment.


well not if it's in Luke it can't because Christ was saying "today" it was fullfilled in their hearing. Now we know all the other stuff made sense for the first coming. We agree on that. What seems strange to me with your version is that you don't see your last five words in Luke in Isaiah....even in the DR. You have the same Isaiah as I do so there's no diff there.

I can only conclude that since Jesus said Isaias' prophecy was fulfilled, therefore "the day of the reward" must be fulfilled in some way other than the Second Coming.


I looked at that ending again. It's diff than the vengeance mentioned in Isaiah. Here it's saying "preaching the day of the reward." So it could still fall under the first coming so that's not the issue so much as where did those 5 extra words come from? Not Isaiah right? I don't have that in either Isaiah or Luke. So why does the DR have it?

The prophecy of Isaias 63: 1-6 has been fulfilled. The poem refers to a victory that appears to have 2 different effects. On the one hand, victory is obtained after a very real and bloody struggle, symbolized by the treading of the wine press and it ends with bloody stained clothes v.3. The conquerer works on his own unaided v. 5. On the other hand, his victory over the enemy means redemption for his people, and the conquerer is first and foremost the Redeemer.


Did you read Rev 19:15? It says:

And out of his mouth goes a sharp sword that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron (compare to Psalm 2) and he treads the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God."

No Lula Jesus was not angry or wrathful his first coming. This in Isaiah and Psalm 2 is speaking of 2nd coming further identified here in Rev. It has NOT been fulfilled at the cross. Just before this happensin Rev 19 we see heaven open with Christ on a white horse...and the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses clothed in fine linen white and clean....not happened yet as far as I know. If so, I missed it.
on May 19, 2007

KFC POSTS:

I looked at that ending again. It's diff than the vengeance mentioned in Isaiah. Here it's saying "preaching the day of the reward." So it could still fall under the first coming so that's not the issue so much as where did those 5 extra words come from? Not Isaiah right? I don't have that in either Isaiah or Luke. So why does the DR have it?


Isaias 61 is basically the same in the Douay Rheims and the King James version. In St.Luke the passage, "the day of vengeance of our God: to comfort all those that mourn:” is absent in both the DR and the KJV. The only difference is that the DR has the phrase "the day of reward" included as part of St.Luke's Gospel account of what Jesus read that day in the synagogue in Nazareth...while the more modern versions, such as the New American Bible and the King James Version doesn't.

In answer to your question, I'd say the DR has it there becasue ever since it was first translated into English in 1582, the DR has been considered by theologians and scholars across the spectrum as the most accurate and reliable English translation there is. Therefore, at least to me, it's not so much why does the DR have it, as it is---why do the other versions not have it?

KFC POSTS:

I looked at that ending again. It's diff than the vengeance mentioned in Isaiah. Here it's saying "preaching the day of the reward." So it could still fall under the first coming


We agree, the ending in St.Luke is different than the vengeance phrase in Isaias. That's why I've come to the conclusion that Isaias' prophecy as fulfilled in St.Luke's account.

on May 19, 2007
LULAPILGRIM POSTS:
The prophecy of Isaias 63: 1-6 has been fulfilled. The poem refers to a victory that appears to have 2 different effects. On the one hand, victory is obtained after a very real and bloody struggle, symbolized by the treading of the wine press and it ends with bloody stained clothes v.3. The conquerer works on his own unaided v. 5. On the other hand, his victory over the enemy means redemption for his people, and the conquerer is first and foremost the Redeemer.


KFC POSTS: Did you read Rev 19:15? It says:

And out of his mouth goes a sharp sword that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron (compare to Psalm 2) and he treads the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God."

No Lula Jesus was not angry or wrathful his first coming. This in Isaiah and Psalm 2 is speaking of 2nd coming further identified here in Rev. It has NOT been fulfilled at the cross. Just before this happensin Rev 19 we see heaven open with Christ on a white horse...and the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses clothed in fine linen white and clean....not happened yet as far as I know. If so, I missed it.


KFC, I'll reiterate. I think(not in the dogmatic sense)that all of the Old Testament prophecies have been fulfilled. Yet,regarding interpretion of the Scriptures, I recognize that there are other various interpretative possiblities out there from which no doubt, being relatively new at Scripture study, I can learn something.

Isaias wrote in the 8th century BC and the latter chapters concern the background of problems that arose in Judah and particularly in Jerusalem on the return from exile. The returned exiles was punctured by harsh realities; Judah was in ruins; the people had different priorities and tensions developed; the Persian rule was by foreigners. In ch. 56-66, Isaias' message was geared to encourage the people to stay faithful to God and to be sincere in their religious practice by avoiding idolatry and corruption among leaders. It's hopeful prophecy always looking forward to a restoration of Jerusalem and the whole world. The chapters we've discussed concern judgments against various nations; remembrance of God kindness towards Israel and a desire for Him to reveal Himself again. Isaias' prophecy mainly contains the theme of God, the offense of man's sin and the universal scope of salvation--- from the Messiah that is to come through the hope in regard to the End time.



We're knocking heads seeing Isaias' prophecy from different angles and lenses. You always tend towards the End time skipping over the time of Christ First Advent and His mission work, while I see his prophecy fulfilled in the time of Christ, His Redemptive mission and in His kingdom.



on May 19, 2007
We're knocking heads seeing Isaias' prophecy from different angles and lenses. You always tend towards the End time skipping over the time of Christ First Advent and His mission work, while I see his prophecy fulfilled in the time of Christ, His Redemptive mission and in His kingdom.


Many believe, as I do also, that the prophets NEVER saw the church age. They only saw Christ's coming and wrote down what they "saw" or were inspired to write. They were writing from a Jewish perspective. You're looking at this from a Christian or a Catholoic POV and trying to fit this together all under the first coming when it doesn't fit.

They saw the Messiah coming. The never expected that their own people would reject him. Remember they were all waiting for the Messiah with baited breath. Moses spoke about this coming prophet as did all the prophets. They saw his vengeance like here in Isaiah 61:2b, wrote it down and took that to mean on their enemies. That's why they never accepted Christ because he did not come as expected. He did not come in vengeance so they rejected him. He was NOT their king. Zechariah says that when Christ does come the second time they will weep and mourn for him knowing they missed him the first time. They will understand then. That's why I said to read the OT book of Zech 12-14.

They just never expected two comings.

It's like they saw this time line ahead of them but never saw the 2,000 blip that went under their timeline. Then it will resume and go on as they saw it with the day of God's vengence upon the earth. At that point is when God will turn back to the Jews. I know Paul talked alot about the "mystery" of the Jew and Gentile being joint heirs alot in his epistles.

It goes all the way back first to Genesis after the flood when it was prophesied that Noah's son Japeth (Gentile line) would be sheltered under the tents of Shem (Jewish Line). Jew and Gentile together and even goes way back to Abraham when he was promised "all nations would be blessed because of him." We as Gentile Christians are grafted into the Jewish Abrahamic Tree. Jesus talked about this in John 15.

There is still alot of unfullfilled prophecy in the OT. I'm thinking of writing a blog on this...the diff instructions given to the Jew and the Christian. They both have diff instructions regarding end time happenings. Maybe tomorrow.

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